Tim Isbell with some help from Copilot AI, August 24, 2026
While working together on an Ezekiel passage, my friend told me he was annoyed by the 'son of man' term. I wrote something on it several years ago, but when I read it again, I realized it wasn't adequate. So I revised it and posted it on my site for others who may struggle with the same issue.
The Bible’s use of the term “son of man” or Son of Man” in Scripture often confuses or troubles Bible readers. Here’s my understanding.
The prophet Ezekiel wrote that God addressed him as “son of man.” The term appears over 90 times in the book of Ezekiel. It’s sort of like God saying to his prophet, “Don’t get big-headed. You’re not divine; you're a human prophet through whom I give messages to your peers.”
The term appears several other times in the Old Testament, most notably in Daniel 7:13-14: "As my vision continued that night, I saw someone like a son of man coming with the clouds of heaven." He approached the Ancient One and was led into his presence. He was given authority, honor, and sovereignty over all the nations of the world, so that people of every race and nation and language would obey him. His rule is eternal—it will never end. His kingdom will never be destroyed.”
In the New Testament, Jesus used the term “Son of Man” (capitalized) over 80 times, almost always referring to Himself. No one else calls Him this. Jesus presumably used the title to identify himself as the “someone like a son of man” referred to in Daniel’s prophecy: someone simultaneously divine and human.
Blessings,
Tim